Under the holding of a recent court opinion, if you were never prescribed a drug but unlawfully grab and pop pills that had been prescribed to someone else, you (or your estate) can sue the manufacturer anyway for side effects you are said to have suffered. The court did disallow claims for failure to warn, but left standing claims that the drug (fen-phen) posed too high a risk to users overall [Beck & Herrmann, Crowe v. Wyeth, E.D. Pa. applying Missouri law]
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What if one were say an extremely successful conservative radio talkshow host and you were alleged to have abused an Rx that was written to you? And also happened to actually be from Missouri? Would such a “hypothetical” person also be given a pass?
What’s that got to do with it, Todd?